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Re: What's with the double negative "not in...", "not un..."?
Mike Lyle (mike_lyle_uk@REMOVETHISyahoo.co.uk) 2005/07/11 15:17

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From: "Mike Lyle" <mike_lyle_uk@REMOVETHISyahoo.co.uk>
Newsgroups: alt.languages.english
Subject: Re: What's with the double negative "not in...", "not un..."?
Date: Mon, 11 Jul 2005 22:17:23 +0100
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Chris Croughton wrote:
> On Mon, 11 Jul 2005 14:12:57 GMT, Miss Elaine Eos
>    <Misc@*your-shoes*PlayNaked.com> wrote:
[...]
>> At any rate, does anyone know where this form originated, and
>> whether or not it is considered proper?
>
> It is considered to be not improper <g>.  However, over use of the
> form can be annoying to readers (as in Hardy, above).  There are
some
> words where it doesn't make much sense, though:
>
>   not uncertain
>   not improbable

It's a perfectly normal usage in formal and informal English, and I
think it always has been. Certainly, a writer or speaker can over-use
it; but that doesn't invalidate the usage. I think the idea that it's
related to the British (and American: avoid easy stereotyping here)
liking for understatement is good; but it's perfectly possible in
other languages too -- it actually feels quite French to me. I can't
give an early example, though I did unsuccessfully try a quick search
in Michael Quinion's super
http://www.worldwidewords.org/index.htm

Going to
http://www.mastertexts.com/index.php?PageName=Search
you'll find that most of the first page of examples of "not
impossible" and "not improbable" are translations from the French. I
haven't tried any others.

If you go to Google Groups alt.usage.english and search a few
examples such as "not impossible" etc, I'm sure you'll find some
relevant discussions.

--
Mike.



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